> Who 'owns' it? The answer is we both do under the eyes of the law. No matter how > 'trivial' it is (you own an equals sign). A judge would not see it as 'trivial'. In > fact you could argue that it radically changed the way the code works. Copyright does > not work that way. At the company you work for now I am sure they have NDA's in place > for many things. Those are there to say if this situation happens your company owns > it. The companies I have worked for do similar things.
What do NDAs have to do with works for hire and copyright assignment?