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Re: (e^(i*π)) + 1 = 0 *nt*
03/18/13 06:59 PM
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This reminds me of a discussion in a pub with some former colleagues while inebriated. One of them asked another, which is greater, e^pi or pi^e, and how would you prove it? He'd been asked this as an interview question years back, and had guessed wrong, but had no idea how to prove it. The guy he asked in the pub guessed right, but also had no idea how to go about proving it. Guy asking kept at him for a while, and started carrying on about Taylor series and crap. After I stumbled home from the pub (it was my local), I managed to come up with a proof while still drunk, with pen and paper. It require Taylor series - you can do it with simple algebra, calculus, and graph construction. You can also find proofs with Google, but that's not the point. So, which would you guess is greater while drunk in a bar?
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